They got a whole field of studies called "ethics" dedicated to this
I know. But the study of ethics existing doesn’t really make me any less confused about the topic I posted about.
I think your first assertion is flawed then inherently your second assertion will be flawed.
Which part of the first sentence do you think is flawed? Are you saying that if morality is ultimately personal preference, something can still be objectively morally wrong? I would love to see your justification for that claim, if that is what you're claiming. If that isn't what you are claiming, please clarify.
